Joint Fires Observer (JFO) Course Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In the CFF example, which information is included in the read-back after the initial call?
• Which item is included in the First Transmission besides Observer Identification?
• Which is listed as an advantage of the AC-130?
• HE mortars damage their targets through which methods? (one or both)
• What are the three primary ammunition types for Mortars?
• ROUNDS COMPLETE indicates that what has occurred?
• Which statement correctly defines the relationship between precision weapons and accurate weapons using CEP values?
• What is the rate of fire for the GAU-23 on the AC-130W?
• TOT/TTT is shown as an example of which category in fire control terminology?
• Which doctrine applies to the employment of forces of a single service?
• Time Fuze: When is the delay initiated?
• Which items should be contained in the Target Description for a CFF?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles intelligence?
• What does PGM stand for in precision munitions context?
• What does GTL help determine in targeting?
• In Laser Polar operations, directions are accurate to the nearest how many mils?
• What does the WCMD INS tail kit provide after release?
• The GAU-8/A Avenger was designed primarily as what?
• Which representation of MAXORD/MSA values is shown in the example?
• Which statement about Terminal Guidance Operations is accurate?
• If you hear ROUNDS COMPLETE, what has happened?
• What does the Airspace Control Order (ACO) provide?
• Which term is transmitted as SPLASH when five seconds remain before detonation?
• The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) has control of air assets and the capability to plan, task, and control joint air operations. This designation is typically associated with which two components?
• In the CFF example, what does the phrase At My Command indicate?
• Which pair correctly identifies the two types of adjustments?
• Which doctrine is described as the fundamental principle guiding the employment of forces of two or more services in coordinated action and is promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
• What is an advantage of using a Laser Guided Bomb (LGB)?
• What is the Airspace Control Authority (ACA)?
• Among participants in the CAS process, who is responsible for the effective and safe planning and execution of CAS?
• Which item is listed as a disadvantage of the AC-130?
• The 40mm M2A1 'Bofors' cannon is located where on the AC-130? (and what is its rate and ammo capacity)
• Coordinate-based targeting does not require tallied by aircrew.
• Which capability is explicitly listed for F-16 Capes to indicate operation in all weather conditions?
• What does the Joint Air Operations Center (JAOC) represent in joint operations?
• Proximity Fuze uses what to measure time between transmission and reception of a radar wave?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an AC-130 mission?
• Which statement best describes the role of the Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC)?
• What is the SHOT transmission in artillery communications?
• Which system provides near real-time data to efficiently execute the battle plan and can detect, identify, and classify targets on the ground using SAR and MTI?
• Which statement best describes an Impact Fuze?
• Which weapon is the A-10 equipped with as its 30mm gun?
• What is the GAU-8/A's rate of fire?
• Vertical Shift is the amount up or down measured to the nearest how many meters?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an aircraft ammunition type?
• Which system provides the interface between the Army and tactical air support agencies of other services in planning, evaluating, processing, and coordinating air support requirements and operations?
• Where is the GAU-12/U located on the AC-130U?
• What does the acronym OCA stand for?
• Which item is a valid part of the Method of Engagement?
• Who designates the JFACC?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is responsible for Manpower and Personnel?
• What is the rated high rate of fire for the 20 mm M61A1 Vulcan?
• Close Proximity represents a specific distance.
• Which statement is listed as a limitation for the F-15 Strike Eagle in the material?
• CBU weapons are best suited for which type of targets?
• Which statement best describes a Call for Fire?
• What is the function of the Net Control Station (NCS) in the JARN communications flow?
• Which weapon is listed under A-10 Ordnance as a direct-fire weapon?
• Which of the following is a listed AC-130 mission category?
• What is the Pi value (Probability of incapacitation) used for risk-estimate distances?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is primarily responsible for operations planning and execution?
• All GBU are composed of what?
• Which of the following is NOT a METT-TC element?
• Which of the following describes CEP?
• GFC stands for which of the following?
• Which capability does JSTARS provide on the battlefield?
• Which item is listed as F-16 Ordnance that represents a guided bomb type?
• Which air action requires detailed integration with ground forces?
• What is the Air Operations Center (AOC)?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary mortar ammunition types listed?
• From a forward position, which entity directs the action of combat aircraft engaged in CAS and other offensive air operations?
• The Area Air Defense Commander (AADC) is responsible for which type of operations?
• What is the purpose of Observer Identification in a Call for Fire?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six call for fire elements?
• Which statement is true about Bomb on Target versus Bomb on Coordinate?
• Type 1 Control requires the ability to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target under attack, enabling direct positive control.
• What is required for an LGB to achieve accurate guidance?
• Which F-16 Ordnance item is a guided bomb type listed for that aircraft?
• Danger Close describes ordinance delivery at which distance?
• What is the device used to initiate bomb detonation at a predetermined time and under desired circumstances?
• The GAU-8/A is accurate in excess of what altitude, with armor-piercing effective within what altitude?
• What is the purpose of the Gun Target Line (GTL)?
• GBU-38 is a variant of which munition program?
• Which item is included in a CFF Target Description?
• Which of the following is listed as an AC-130 limitation?
• What is the Air Support Operations Center (ASOC) responsible for?
• What are the four methods that cause a fuze to function?
• Which is listed as an AC-130 limitation?
• The need for a JFACC is based on which of the following factors?
• What is the typical CEP range for the guided munitions described?
• Which combination lists all three primary mortar ammunition types?
• Which capability is listed for F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that relates to long-range targeting?
• Bomb on Coordinate statement true description?
• What is the role of the Control and Reporting Center (CRC)?
• Fire Support Coordination Line describes what?
• How many rounds does the GAU-8/A have and how many bursts does it translate to?
• Which item is included in the First Transmission?
• In Laser Grid operations, how are corrections transmitted?
• What defines a high-angle trajectory?
• Which unit provides the JFACC with the capability of real-time operation control of forces and the current air picture and asset status?
• Shifts (Lateral, Range, Vertical) describe adjustments to what?
• Who appoints the Joint Force Commander?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is responsible for Communications Systems?
• Which is a disadvantage of CBUs?
• Which shift measures the elevation difference between the known point and the target?
• Risk-Estimate Distance is used to estimate risk in terms of percent of friendly casualties that may result from an air strike. Distances are defined by whom?
• What CBU is nicknamed 'Gator'?
• Which capability is listed for F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that aids all-weather operations?
• Which term refers to a commander authorized to exercise combatant command?
• Forward Air Controller (Airborne), denoted FAC (A), refers to which role?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by the example Air Force Doctrine?
• Which aircraft hosts the GAU-8/A Avenger?
• Which term marks the end of the planned firing sequence when the required rounds have been fired?
• Which distance constitutes Danger Close?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by the term JFIRE?
• Which capability is listed for F-16 Capes that corresponds to a data link with other units?
• Which statement best describes the Method of Fire and Control?
• Danger Close for mortars and artillery is within how many meters of friendly troops?
• Which element links the Army unit to the ASOC/TACP for close air support?
• Which statement correctly describes the sensing method of a Proximity Fuze?
• What is the goal of Fire for Effect?
• What does Detailed Integration achieve?
• Which system increases the surveillance and command and control capabilities for air operations?
• What does JDAM stand for?
• Which term is one of the four basic categories of errors that influence air-delivered weapon accuracy?
• What does Lateral Shift measure in a JFO targeting context?
• Which of the following is listed as an AC-130 mission category?
• TRA involves processing of available information to ascertain an ALR to friendly forces or noncombatants; the supported commander will weigh the benefits and liabilities to determine a particular type of control.
• Which bomb is the 500 lb general purpose bomb?
• The Theater Air Control System provides the capability to plan and conduct air operations.
• The GAU-23 'Bushmaster' is located on the AC-130W on which side?
• Which of the following is NOT a CFF mission type?
• What is the Army force structure as listed, from largest to smallest units?
• Which of the following is listed in the A-10 Ordnance as a type of air-to-ground ordnance?
• The Airspace Control Authority (ACA) is primarily responsible for which of the following?
• What is the typical AC-130 orbit altitude?
• Precision Fire is described as what?
• Which item is listed as F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that indicates a large capacity to carry ordnance?
• What is the role of Air Defense Artillery (ADA) in air defense liaison?
• What is the correct expansion for DCA, as it relates to air space defense?
• The Joint Operations Center (JOC) is the Command Post of the Joint Force Commander and is operated by which Joint Staff directorate?
• What is the primary role of a Tactical Air Control Party (TACP)?
• Which designation corresponds to High Explosive Incendiary (HEI) ammunition?
• Which doctrine is promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, in coordination with the combatant commanders and the joint staff?
• Which capability is listed under A-10 Capes as Long Loiter (2 hours)?
• A GPS-guided weapon is essentially what?
• The CBU-87 uses how many BLU-97 submunitions?
• Which SPLASH transmission timing is correct?
• What is the Joint Air Request Net (JARN) primarily used for?
• Multinational Doctrine is the fundamental principle guiding the employment of forces of two or more nations in a coordinated action.
• Which statement about the AGM-65 Maverick is true?
• Which term refers to the airborne extension of a TACP/JTAC?
• Which statement best describes CEP?
• What does GTL stand for?
• What is the A-10 mission according to the material?
• Which item is included in the Third Transmission?
• CBU-89 'Gator' is an anti-armor minefield that deploys which combination of mines?
• Which control type allows clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement without requiring visual acquisition?
• The GAU-12/U 'Equalizer' is mounted on which AC-130 variant?
• Which statement correctly describes Air Interdiction?
• The CEP relates to delivery accuracy; which statement best describes CEP?
• TIC stands for which term?
• What does a Warning Order accomplish for a fire mission?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by JFIRE?
• Which statement describes Type 2 Control?
• Which item is transmitted in the Second Transmission?
• Which designation refers to High Explosive Incendiary with Tracer?
• Which center is normally collocated with the FSCOORD?
• In a fire mission, the "size of the element" refers to which unit type?
• Which CFF mission is intended to rapidly suppress a non-active target?
• Which center operates as the joint operations center for air operations during joint missions?
• Which F-15 Strike Eagle capability is described as enabling precision targeting?
• Terminal Guidance Operations description?
• Which entity is typically designated as both the Airspace Control Authority (ACA) and Area Air Defense Commander (AADC)?
• If a weapon system has a CEP of 20 meters, how many bombs will drop within 20 meters of the DPI?
• Which munition type is explicitly listed under F-15 Strike Eagle Ordnance for air-to-ground use?
• Area Fire is used for which purpose?
• Which transmission is sent after each round fired?
• Immediate Suppression and Immediate Smoke differ from standard suppression in that:
• What command is used to adjust fire when using a polar method?
• General Purpose Bombs are described as
• What are the three purposes of a fuze?
• What transmission is sent after each round fired in artillery communications?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles logistics?
• The CBU-87 is most effective against which type of targets?
• Which directorate is primarily responsible for developing and refining joint operation plans?
• Which statement is NOT true about fuze function methods?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between GBU and dumb bombs?
• Type 2 Control corresponds to which scenario?
• GTL describes which element in targeting?
• What is Close Air Support?
• What does the acronym DCA stand for?
• Which phrase indicates a Fire for Effect with a Laser Grid mission?
• Forward Line of Own Troops refers to which of the following?
• What is a Command Post?
• Which of the following is NOT a possible content of the Method of Engagement?
• A Warning Order includes which of the following elements?
• Sensor Fuzed Weapon (SFW) within CBU-97 detects heat and scans with which sensor?
• Which role is trained to request, control, and adjust surface-to-surface fires and provide timely targeting information in support of CAS?
• General Purpose Bombs characteristics include explosive weight as a percentage of total weight. What is the typical percentage?
• Which statement best describes suppression?
• CBU-89 uses magnetic target sensing and deploys how much trip wire?
• Terminal Attack Control entails what authority?
• The Air Operations Center (AOC) is the operations center for which commander?
• Which system guides EO/IR/IRR guided weapons?
• Danger Close for 5 inch naval guns and TLAM is within how many meters?
• Nose and/or tail fuzes can be used to do what?
• What is Target Location Error?
• Which role is the Joint Terminal Attack Controller?
• What capability does the WCMD INS tail kit provide after release?
• Who is the senior artilleryman at each echelon of command?
• Which term describes the most forward friendly forces position?
• The 20 mm M61A1 Vulcan is primarily used for what role?
• Which directorate would you consult for coordinating airspace control and air defense integration into operations?
• AWACS stands for which of the following?
• What does HARM stand for?
• What is the 1,000 foot buffer applied in the Gun Target Line concept?
• Which is an advantage of cluster munitions (CBUs)?
• Which statement best describes Precision Fire?
• Which item is mentioned as part of the A-10 Capes regarding survivability features?
• Which is a key difference of Laser Grid compared to a standard grid mission?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles plans?
• Who is the Fire Support Coordinator (FSCOORD)?
• In a Polar Plot method, how is the target located?
• What is the Fires Cell responsible for?
• Which of the following is NOT a documented method of target location?
• What is a Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU) primarily used for?
• Which entities can supply targeting data?
• Range Shift refers to the amount to add or drop in the nearest 100 meters from the known point to the target. Which option best describes this value?
• When is "Adjust Fire" announced?
• An example of multinational doctrine is NATO.
• Bomb on Target requires what condition?
• Which statement describes Type 1 Control in relation to visual acquisition?
• OPORD is best described as which of the following?
• Which system provides the capability to plan and conduct air operations?